Nursing Elites

1. A client is refusing to undergo any more treatments in the hospital and wants to leave against medical advice. When the nurse requests the client to sign an AMA order, the client refuses and leaves. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Call security to hold the client until he signs the order
• B. Notify the physician to convince the client to stay
• C. Speak with the client's spouse to persuade him to stay
• D. Allow the client to leave and document the refusal in his chart

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse cannot force the client to stay in the hospital to receive treatment or to sign an AMA order. It is essential to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. While involving security or pressuring the client through the physician or spouse may seem like options, they are not appropriate in this situation. The nurse should allow the client to leave if they are competent to make that decision, document the refusal in the client's chart to ensure all actions are appropriately documented, and follow institutional policies for patients leaving against medical advice.

2. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

3. A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?

• A. Constipation
• B. Polyuria
• C. Rash
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is a crucial early indication of lithium toxicity. It results from the drug's effect on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This is a significant symptom to monitor as it can indicate potential toxicity. Constipation, rash, and tinnitus are not typically associated with early indications of lithium toxicity. Constipation is more commonly seen as a side effect of some medications, while rash and tinnitus are not specific indicators of lithium toxicity.

4. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

5. A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:

• A. Optimizing
• B. Satisficing
• C. Brainstorming
• D. Centralizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.

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