Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for a pediatric client shows little concern when the parents attempt to speak with her about their daughter's illness. When approached by the nurse manager about her behavior, the nurse responds by saying, 'I don't want to get involved. It doesn't matter what I do anyway; my work does not make much of a difference.' This nurse is exhibiting which of the following characteristics?

• A. Objectivity
• B. Depersonalization
• C. Procrastination
• D. Disruption

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Depersonalization.' A nurse who distances themselves from clients to avoid emotional involvement is displaying depersonalization. This behavior is often seen in nurses experiencing burnout due to stress. Depersonalization can stem from low morale, moral distress, and may serve as a defense mechanism to cope with stress and emotional exhaustion. It is a way to shield oneself from feeling overwhelmed by the burdens of caring for others. Choice A, 'Objectivity,' is incorrect because objectivity involves maintaining a neutral and unbiased perspective, which is not the case here. Choice C, 'Procrastination,' is incorrect as it refers to delaying tasks, not emotional distancing. Choice D, 'Disruption,' is irrelevant to the scenario described and does not align with the nurse's behavior of detachment and lack of concern.

2. A client has volunteered to take part in a research study. After participating for two months, he decides that he can no longer tolerate the study and decides to leave. What are the client's rights in this situation?

• A. The client has a right to be released from the study but must reimburse the researchers for charges incurred
• B. The client has a right to be released from the study without any liability
• C. The client has a right to be released from the study but is prohibited from participating in any future studies
• D. The client does not have the right to be released from the study; he must finish his participation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client voluntarily participates in a research study and later decides to withdraw, they have the right to be released from the study without any liability. It is unethical to force a participant to continue in a study against their will as this violates their autonomy and personal rights. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests that the client must reimburse the researchers for charges incurred, which is not typically the case unless agreed upon beforehand. Choice C is incorrect as there is no standard practice prohibiting a participant from future studies just because they withdrew from a current one. Choice D is incorrect because participants always have the right to withdraw from a research study at any time.

3. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

• A. Swelling
• B. Rapid pulse
• C. Fever
• D. High white blood count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.

4. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

5. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

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