Nursing Elites

1. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not recommended?

• A. A diet high in grains
• B. A diet with adequate caloric intake
• C. A high protein diet
• D. A restricted sodium diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with Addison's disease, a restricted sodium diet is not recommended. These patients require normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) should have ample access to salt because of the salt wasting that occurs if their condition is untreated. Therefore, a diet high in grains, a diet with adequate caloric intake, and a high protein diet are all recommended for patients with Addison's disease to support their nutritional needs and overall health. However, restricting sodium can be detrimental for these patients due to the nature of their condition.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. A nurse with five years of experience working in a hospital unit is promoted as a mentor and preceptor to a new nursing staff. This is an example of:

• A. Collegiality
• B. Competence
• C. Advocacy
• D. Integration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collegiality is the action of forming relationships and supporting others through work experiences. In this scenario, the nurse being promoted as a mentor and preceptor exemplifies collegiality by fostering an encouraging educational relationship with the new nursing staff. The nurse demonstrates appropriate nursing care, teaches skills, and supports the professional growth of others. Choice B, 'Competence,' refers to having the necessary skills and knowledge, but in this context, the focus is on the supportive and educational role of the nurse. Choice C, 'Advocacy,' involves speaking up for patients' rights and needs, which is not directly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice D, 'Integration,' does not directly relate to the situation described, where the emphasis is on mentoring and guiding new staff.

4. Which of the following is an example of restorative care?

• A. A nurse teaches a new mother how to breastfeed her infant
• B. A nurse helps a client with developing a bladder-retraining program
• C. A nurse places an allergy wristband on a client's wrist to notify other providers of potential reactions
• D. A nurse contacts the family of a client to tell them he will be out of surgery soon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restorative care involves assisting clients in regaining or maintaining their highest possible level of function. This type of care focuses on promoting self-care and independence by helping clients perform activities that enhance their functional abilities. In this scenario, a nurse who assists a client with developing a bladder-retraining program is engaging in restorative care by helping the client regain bladder function. Choices A, C, and D do not represent restorative care. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed her infant (Choice A) is an example of educative care, placing an allergy wristband (Choice C) is a safety measure, and contacting a client's family to update them on surgery (Choice D) is related to communication and support, not restorative care.

5. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

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