NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. ''All elderly individuals experience depression occasionally.''
- B. ''I'm relieved that I will improve within 2 or 3 days.''
- C. ''I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause.''
- D. ''Reducing stress in my life will alleviate the depression.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, 'I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause,' demonstrates an understanding that depression can arise without a clear trigger, indicating effective teaching. Choice A is incorrect because not all elderly individuals experience depression, and this statement doesn't show understanding. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects a misconception about the quick resolution of depression. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between stress reduction and depression resolution.
2. Which of the following is a true statement about assessing blood pressure by palpation?
- A. Only the diastolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
- B. The palpation technique is most useful for infants and small children.
- C. Hypertension is a common condition that might need to be assessed through blood pressure palpation.
- D. Only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing blood pressure by palpation, it is important to note that only the systolic blood pressure can be determined accurately using this method. Diastolic blood pressure cannot be reliably assessed through palpation. The palpation technique is particularly useful in situations where traditional blood pressure measurement methods are challenging, such as in infants, small children, or individuals with low blood pressure that is difficult to hear. Hypertension, a common condition characterized by elevated blood pressure, is typically assessed using auscultation rather than palpation. Therefore, the correct statement is that only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
3. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
4. How can the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients be prevented?
- A. Bed alarms
- B. Chair alarms
- C. Door alarms
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Bed alarms, chair alarms, and door alarms are all effective measures to prevent the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients. These alarms can alert caregivers when a patient tries to leave a designated area, helping to keep them safe. It is crucial to respond promptly to these alarms to ensure the patient's safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each type of alarm plays a vital role in a comprehensive wandering prevention strategy.
5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
- B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
- C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
- D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
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