NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The client is receiving an MAOI. Which foods should the nurse caution the client to avoid?
- A. Pork, spinach, and fresh oysters
- B. Milk, grapes, and meat tenderizers
- C. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate
- D. Leafy green vegetables, fresh apples, and ice cream
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client is receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), they should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate are rich in tyramine and can interact with MAOIs, leading to a dangerous rise in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not typically restricted when taking MAOIs.
2. Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?
- A. The test determines if the client is anemic and needs iron supplements
- B. The test determines if there is excess glucose building up in the urine
- C. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis
- D. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.
3. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
- A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
- B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
- C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
- D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.
5. In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Initiate a regular home-visit program by clinic nurses.
- B. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events.
- C. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
- D. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using government grant funding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.
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