Nursing Elites

1. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

2. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

3. Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?

• A. Ensure that the client does not need surgery
• B. Assess the client's grip strength
• C. Perform an Allen test
• D. Check a serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line. Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Unequal leg length
• B. Limited adduction
• C. Diminished femoral pulses
• D. Symmetrical gluteal folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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