Nursing Elites

1. The BRAT diet is often prescribed for patients with gastroenteritis. This acronym stands for:

• A. Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast
• B. Bread, Rice, Apricots, and Tapioca
• C. Bananas, Rolls, Apricots, and Toast
• D. Bananas, Rolls, Applesauce, and Tapioca

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The BRAT diet, which stands for Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast, is commonly recommended for patients with gastroenteritis. These easily digestible foods help firm up stools due to their low fiber content and provide essential nutrients lost during vomiting and diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect because it includes apricots, which are not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Choice C is incorrect as it includes rolls, which are not typically included in the BRAT diet. Choice D is incorrect as it includes tapioca, which is not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Therefore, the correct answer is Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast.

2. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?

• A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
• B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
• C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
• D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.

3. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

4. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

• A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
• B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
• C. There is low-grade fever.
• D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

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