Nursing Elites

1. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

2. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

• A. Start the hepatitis B immunization series.
• B. Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin.
• C. Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.
• D. Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.

3. You are taking care of Mary Eden, an elderly and frail 91-year-old resident. She gets confused during evening hours and at times she thinks that she hears her daughter calling her from the other side of the nursing home. Which physical problem places Mary Eden at risk for falls?

• A. Her confusion
• B. Her daughter
• C. Evening hours
• D. Her frailness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mary Eden's frail and weak muscles due to her age and physical condition place her at risk for falls. While her confusion can contribute to falls, it is considered an emotional or cognitive issue rather than a physical problem. Her daughter and the evening hours are not physical problems that directly increase her risk of falling.

4. A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?

• A. Observation
• B. Reflection
• C. Summarizing
• D. Validating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.

5. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

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