Nursing Elites

1. Ruth is a 72-year-old patient who has been upset and crying all morning. When asked why she is upset, she turns toward the wall in silence. What collaborative process may be helpful in caring for this patient?

• A. Speak with the patient care technician
• B. Call the chaplain
• C. Call the social worker
• D. Call the patient's husband

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collaborating with the patient care technician is an appropriate approach in this scenario. Patient care technicians and nurses' aides often provide direct care to patients, developing a closer relationship with them. Patients may feel more comfortable sharing their feelings with these caregivers compared to other healthcare professionals. In this situation, Ruth's distress appears more emotional than spiritual, making it more suitable to speak with someone directly involved in her care. Calling the chaplain (Choice B) might not directly address Ruth's immediate emotional needs as it could focus more on spiritual support. Involving the social worker (Choice C) could help address underlying emotional or social issues, but speaking with the patient care technician is a more direct and immediate step to assess and provide initial support. Calling the patient's husband (Choice D) may not address Ruth's immediate emotional distress and may not be appropriate without understanding the root cause of her upset.

2. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

3. A client is preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood. All of the following information is part of teaching for this client EXCEPT:

• A. Avoid eating red meat for 3 days before the test
• B. Collect the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement
• C. The stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative
• D. A small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood testing, clients need specific instructions to ensure accurate results. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid eating red meat for at least 3 days before the test, as the blood in the meat can interfere with the test results. Clients should be informed that the stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative as it is not required for this type of testing. Additionally, clients should be aware that a small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear. However, collecting the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement is not recommended as it may introduce contaminants and affect the accuracy of the test. Therefore, this information is not part of the correct teaching for the client preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood.

4. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

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