a physician has administered ketamine to a client who is preparing to undergo general anesthesia which of the following side effects should the nurse

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

A. Delirium
B. Muscle rigidity
C. Hypotension
D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

2. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?

A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.

3. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

A. A normal reading
B. An abnormally low reading
C. An abnormally high reading
D. A fluctuating reading

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

4. Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?

A. Don't worry, they'll explain it in the operating room.
B. It's standard procedure to get the consent; you don't need to worry.
C. Let me ask the nurse anesthetist to come back and explain it further.
D. Someone will review it with you prior to surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.

5. Who typically owns a patient's medical record?

A. The patient
B. The physician
C. The Legal Counsel of the Office
D. No one owns a medical record

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The physician.' Physicians typically own their patients' medical records as they are the ones responsible for creating, updating, and maintaining these records. However, it is essential to note that patients have the legal right to access and obtain copies of their medical records. Choice A ('The patient') is incorrect as patients do not own their medical records, but they do have rights regarding access to them. Choice C ('The Legal Counsel of the Office') is incorrect as legal counsel typically do not own or have ownership rights over medical records. Choice D ('No one owns a medical record') is incorrect as medical records are owned by healthcare providers who create and maintain them, such as physicians.