Nursing Elites

1. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8�F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
• B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
• C. Administer oxygen therapy
• D. Decrease his IV rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.

2. A nurse with five years of experience working in a hospital unit is promoted as a mentor and preceptor to a new nursing staff. This is an example of:

• A. Collegiality
• B. Competence
• C. Advocacy
• D. Integration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collegiality is the action of forming relationships and supporting others through work experiences. In this scenario, the nurse being promoted as a mentor and preceptor exemplifies collegiality by fostering an encouraging educational relationship with the new nursing staff. The nurse demonstrates appropriate nursing care, teaches skills, and supports the professional growth of others. Choice B, 'Competence,' refers to having the necessary skills and knowledge, but in this context, the focus is on the supportive and educational role of the nurse. Choice C, 'Advocacy,' involves speaking up for patients' rights and needs, which is not directly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice D, 'Integration,' does not directly relate to the situation described, where the emphasis is on mentoring and guiding new staff.

3. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?

• A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
• B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
• C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
• D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.

4. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

• A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
• B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
• C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
• D. The effects of PKU are reversible

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).

5. An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?

• A. Primary care
• B. Secondary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.

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