Nursing Elites

1. Which technique of assessment will the healthcare provider use to determine the presence of crepitus, swelling, and pulsations?

• A. Palpation
• B. Inspection
• C. Percussion
• D. Auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Palpation involves using the sense of touch to assess various characteristics such as texture, temperature, moisture, organ location and size, as well as detecting swelling, pulsations, vibrations, rigidity, crepitus, lumps, masses, and tenderness or pain. In this scenario, the healthcare provider would utilize palpation to physically feel for crepitus, swelling, and pulsations. Inspection primarily relies on visual assessment, percussion involves assessing through palpable vibrations and audible sounds, and auscultation uses the sense of hearing. Therefore, the correct answer is palpation for assessing the presence of crepitus, swelling, and pulsations.

2. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment. The correct action by the nurse is reflected by which statement?

• A. Performs the examination from both sides of the bed.
• B. Examines tender or painful areas last to help relieve the patient's anxiety.
• C. Follows a flexible examination sequence, considering the patient's age and condition.
• D. Organizes the assessment to ensure that the patient does not change positions too often.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should organize the assessment to minimize the patient's need to change positions frequently, ensuring efficiency and comfort. It is essential to perform the examination from both sides of the bed to facilitate a comprehensive assessment. Examining tender or painful areas last can help reduce patient discomfort and anxiety. The examination sequence should be flexible, taking into account the patient's age, condition, and specific needs. This approach allows for a tailored and patient-centered assessment, optimizing the quality of care provided.

3. When assessing a 75-year-old patient who has asthma, the nurse notes that the patient assumes a tripod position, leaning forward with arms braced on the chair. How would the nurse interpret these findings?

• A. Interpret that the patient is eager and interested in participating in the interview.
• B. Evaluate the patient for abdominal pain, which may be exacerbated in the sitting position.
• C. Interpret that the patient is having difficulty breathing and assist them to a supine position.
• D. Recognize that a tripod position is often used when a patient is having respiratory difficulties.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assuming a tripod position"?leaning forward with arms braced on chair arms"?occurs with chronic pulmonary diseases like asthma. This position helps improve breathing by allowing better use of respiratory muscles. Option A is incorrect because assuming the tripod position is not related to being eager or interested in participating in an interview. Option B is incorrect as abdominal pain is not typically associated with the tripod position in this context. Option C is incorrect as assisting the patient to a supine position would not address the underlying respiratory difficulty indicated by the tripod position. Therefore, the correct interpretation is to recognize that the patient is likely experiencing respiratory difficulties when assuming the tripod position.

4. What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?

• A. Comply with the laws of the state.
• B. Comply with the laws of the U.S.
• C. Comply with both state and U.S. laws
• D. Maintain safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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