Nursing Elites

1. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

2. During the examination, it is often appropriate to offer some brief teaching about the patient's body or the examiner's findings. Which one of these statements by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. "Your atrial dysrhythmias are under control."?
• B. "You have pitting edema and mild varicosities."?
• C. "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range."?
• D. "I'm using my stethoscope to listen for any crackles, wheezes, or rubs in your lungs."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an examination, providing brief educational information to the patient can enhance rapport, as long as the patient can comprehend the terminology. The most appropriate statement from the nurse is "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range." This statement conveys a vital sign in a way that is likely understandable to the patient. Choices A, B, and D use terminology that may be unfamiliar or confusing to the patient. Option A mentions 'atrial dysrhythmias,' which might not be clear to the patient. Option B involves terms like 'pitting edema' and 'varicosities,' which could be unfamiliar to the patient. Option D references 'crackles,' 'wheezes,' and 'rubs,' which might not be easily understood by the patient.

3. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

4. Which desired outcome written by the nurse is correctly written and measurable?

• A. Client will have a normal bowel pattern by April 2
• B. The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks
• C. The nurse will provide skin care at least 3 times each day
• D. The client will breathe better after resting for 10 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An outcome statement must describe the observable client behavior that should occur in response to the nursing interventions. It consists of a subject, action verb, conditions under which the behavior is to be performed, and the level at which the client will perform the desired behavior. Option B is correctly written and measurable as it includes all the required elements: subject (client), action verb (lose), conditions (within the next 2 weeks), and the level at which the behavior should occur (4 lbs.). Option A lacks the conditions and a specific level, making it not measurable. Option C is a nursing intervention rather than a client goal. Option D does not provide a specific level at which the client should perform the desired behavior, making it not measurable as well.

5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

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