a nurse is performing cpr on a client when a co worker brings an automated external deibrillator aed the nurse prepares to apply the patches to the c
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of "fainting episodes that started last week."? How would the nurse proceed with the examination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient reports fainting episodes, it is crucial to assess for orthostatic hypotension. If the nurse suspects volume depletion, the patient has hypertension, is on antihypertensive medications, or has a history of fainting or syncope, blood pressure readings should be taken in three positions: lying, sitting, and standing. This assessment helps detect orthostatic hypotension, which can provide valuable information about the patient's condition. Taking blood pressure readings in multiple positions allows for a comprehensive evaluation of possible postural changes in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not cover the necessary positions to assess for orthostatic hypotension effectively.

3. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

4. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

5. Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility. Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility. Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.

Similar Questions

The nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?
The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed?
The Sinoatrial Node (SA) is located within which of the following heart structures?
The healthcare provider is reviewing theories of illness. The germ theory, which states that microscopic organisms such as bacteria and viruses are responsible for specific disease conditions, is a basic belief of which theory of illness?
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses