Nursing Elites

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

• A. Document the seizure
• B. Perform neurologic checks
• C. Take the patient's vital signs
• D. Restrain the patient for protection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to perform a physical assessment. Which statement is true about the inspection phase of the physical assessment?

• A. Usually yields little information
• B. Takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information
• C. May be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner
• D. Requires a thorough examination of the patient's body before proceeding with palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the inspection phase of a physical assessment, it is essential to take time as it can reveal a significant amount of information. Initially, it may feel uncomfortable for the examiner to focus solely on observing the patient without immediate action. Rushing through inspection is not recommended as it can lead to missing important cues. Train yourself to be thorough during inspection by observing carefully and taking the time needed to gather essential data. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because inspection typically provides valuable information, may feel uncomfortable at first but is necessary for a comprehensive assessment, and does not involve a quick glance but requires a focused and detailed observation.

4. A client is complaining of pain that starts in the shoulder and travels down the length of his arm. This type of pain is referred to as:

• A. Referred pain
• B. Superficial pain
• C. Radiating pain
• D. Precipitating pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Radiating pain is the correct term for pain that originates in one part of the body and extends to other related areas. In this scenario, the pain starting in the shoulder and traveling down the arm describes radiating pain. Referred pain (Choice A) is pain felt at a site different from the actual origin of the pain. Superficial pain (Choice B) is pain that arises from the skin or tissues just beneath it. Precipitating pain (Choice D) refers to pain that is triggered by specific actions or events, not the characteristic described in the question.

5. A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from?

• A. Menorrhagia
• B. Grave's Disease
• C. Menopause
• D. Infertility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation. One of the common reasons for monitoring LH levels is infertility. In women with infertility, LH levels are monitored to time intercourse accurately to maximize the chances of conception. Menorrhagia (choice A) is characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding and is not directly related to LH levels. Grave's Disease (choice B) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland and is not typically monitored by LH levels. Menopause (choice C) is a natural process marking the end of a woman's reproductive years and is not a condition where LH monitoring for infertility is common.

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