a urine pregnancy test

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. A urine pregnancy test:

A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

2. When evaluating the temperature of older adults, what aspect should the healthcare provider remember about an older adult's body temperature?

A. The body temperature of the older adult is lower than that of a younger adult.
B. An older adult's body temperature is approximately the same as that of a young child.
C. Body temperature varies based on the type of thermometer used.
D. In older adults, body temperature can fluctuate widely due to less effective heat control mechanisms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When evaluating the temperature of older adults, it is important to note that their body temperature is usually lower than that of younger adults, with a mean temperature of 36.2�C. Choice B is incorrect because an older adult's body temperature is not approximately the same as that of a young child. Choice C is incorrect because body temperature is a physiological parameter and does not vary based on the type of thermometer used. Choice D is incorrect because while older adults may have less effective heat control mechanisms, their body temperature is typically lower, not widely fluctuating.

3. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
C. Harbor microorganisms.
D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

4. Which of the following actions can help prevent a fire in the area where a healthcare professional works?

A. Using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment
B. Marking equipment that is not working properly and using it carefully until it can be inspected by maintenance
C. Notifying visitors or posting signs that indicate oxygen is in use in certain areas
D. Keeping extra equipment stored in one area with other supplies and materials

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to help prevent a fire in a healthcare setting is to notify visitors or post signs indicating that oxygen is in use in certain areas. Oxygen is a combustible material, and awareness of its presence is crucial to prevent fire hazards. By informing all individuals in the facility about the use of oxygen through clear signs or notifications, the risk of improper use and potential fire accidents can be minimized. Choice A is incorrect because using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment is not directly related to fire prevention. Choice B is also incorrect as marking faulty equipment and using it until inspection does not directly address fire prevention. Choice D is not a recommended action for fire prevention; storing extra equipment with supplies does not address the specific fire risk associated with oxygen use.

5. Intermittent fevers are:

A. fevers which come and go.
B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.