NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. The nurse notes bruises on the pregnant client's face and abdomen. There are no bruises on her legs and arms. Further assessment is required to confirm which condition?
- A. Domestic abuse
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Domestic abuse is a serious concern during pregnancy as it can escalate, and the bruises on the face and abdomen may indicate physical violence towards the pregnant woman. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like an enlarged uterus for gestational age, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, not bruises. Excessive exercise typically leads to cardiovascular or pulmonary issues, not bruising. Thrombocytopenic purpura and other bleeding disorders usually present with bruises and petechiae on various body surfaces, not just limited to the face and abdomen.
2. The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
- A. Administration of plasma expanders
- B. Use of careful handwashing technique
- C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
- D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.
3. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
4. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Functional incontinence
- C. Fluid volume deficit
- D. High risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.
5. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?
- A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
- B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
- C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.
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