NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?
- A. Assess for feelings of loneliness and isolation.
- B. Determine if the client has unresolved grief.
- C. Determine if there are safety issues.
- D. Ask about the availability of support systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.
2. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Depression
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.
3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
4. Which of the following examples indicates that the nurse is giving recognition as a form of therapeutic communication?
- A. You need to take your medicine now, Adam.
- B. Jill, your father is trying to make amends with you.
- C. The physician wants to meet with you and your husband, Amy.
- D. Linda, you brushed your hair this morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Recognition is a form of therapeutic communication in which the nurse points out a positive aspect of the client's behavior. Noting that a client brushed her hair herself indicates that the nurse recognizes the client's attempts at self-care. This recognition shows the client that the nurse is paying attention and may be open to further communication. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate recognition. Choice A focuses on a directive statement, Choice B involves informing the client about a situation without acknowledging their actions, and Choice C informs the client about a meeting without providing recognition for any behavior.
5. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.
- A. prevent it
- B. restrain the patient
- C. medicate the patient
- D. isolate the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.
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