NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorder
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.
2. A client has been diagnosed with depression, and a nurse is assisting them. Which of the following is an example of a short-term outcome as part of the nursing process for this client?
- A. Client will verbalize that depression symptoms have lifted
- B. Client will identify life stressors that may be contributing to depression
- C. Client's insomnia will be resolved as evidenced by 8 hours of sleep each night
- D. Client will identify a mental health counselor in the community with whom they can meet for ongoing therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the nursing process for a client with depression, short-term outcomes are goals that need to be achieved before advancing towards long-term outcomes. Identifying life stressors that may be contributing to the depression is a crucial initial step. This process helps the client work through feelings of grief or sadness before moving on to long-term goals like therapy and depression management. Choice A is not a short-term outcome as the lifting of depression symptoms is usually a long-term goal. Choice C focuses on resolving insomnia, which is a symptom of depression, but not directly addressing the root cause. Choice D involves identifying a mental health counselor for ongoing therapy, which is more aligned with a long-term treatment plan, rather than a short-term outcome.
3. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention when providing care for parents who have experienced a stillbirth?
- A. Giving a detailed explanation of possible causes of the stillbirth
- B. Providing the parents the opportunity to say goodbye to their newborn
- C. Explaining that an autopsy is not recommended in the setting of a stillbirth
- D. Arranging follow-up care and providing information to the parents before they leave the hospital
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for parents who have experienced a stillbirth is to provide them with the opportunity to say goodbye to their newborn. This helps in the grieving process and allows the parents closure. Giving a detailed explanation of possible causes of the stillbirth may overwhelm the parents and is not the immediate priority. While an autopsy can be performed in the case of a stillbirth, the decision should be discussed with the parents and their wishes respected. Arranging follow-up care and providing information before the parents leave the hospital is crucial in ensuring they have the necessary support and resources to cope with the loss effectively.
4. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
5. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
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