NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
2. A client diagnosed with sexual dysfunction states, 'Well, I guess my sex life is over.' Which response would the nurse use as a reply?
- A. I'm sorry to hear that.'
- B. 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left.'
- C. 'You are concerned about your sex life?'
- D. 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The response 'You are concerned about your sex life?' explores the meaning of the statement and allows further expression of concern. It shows empathy and encourages the client to elaborate on their feelings. Choice A, 'I'm sorry to hear that,' does not prompt the client to share more about their concerns and may close off communication. Choice B, 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left,' lacks empathy and understanding of the client's emotions, diverting the focus from the client's feelings. Choice D, 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?' shifts the responsibility away from the nurse and may not address the client's emotional needs, potentially making them feel dismissed or embarrassed to seek help.
3. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
- A. Bulimia
- B. Anorexia
- C. Orthorexia
- D. Binge eating disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.
4. Which of the following is a nursing intervention for a client who is experiencing an acute panic attack?
- A. Encourage the client to sit down in a quiet environment
- B. Allow the client to direct the situation
- C. Try to focus the client on one aspect of care, such as regulating breathing patterns
- D. Speak in a commanding tone of voice to get the client's attention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assisting a client with an acute panic attack, the primary goal is to help reduce their anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to focus on one controllable aspect, like regulating breathing patterns, can aid in calming them down. This intervention helps the client to regain control over their breathing, which can alleviate some of the symptoms associated with panic attacks. Options A and B are incorrect because allowing the client to direct the situation or sit down in a quiet environment may not be beneficial during an acute panic attack. Option D is inappropriate as speaking in a commanding tone can further escalate the client's anxiety rather than helping to calm them down.
5. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
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