Nursing Elites

1. At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?

• A. ''I give myself insulin injections in my thighs.''
• B. ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.''
• C. ''Here are my glucose readings that I noted on my calendar.''
• D. ''If I bathe more than once a week, my skin feels too dry.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client states, ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.'' This statement indicates peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to a lack of sensation in the lower extremities. When clients are unable to feel pressure or pain in their feet, they are at a high risk for skin impairment, such as cuts, wounds, or ulcers. Option A is not directly related to impaired skin integrity, as self-administering insulin in the thighs does not pose a direct risk to skin integrity. Option C shows good glucose monitoring, which is important but does not directly indicate impaired skin integrity. Option D suggests dry skin due to infrequent bathing, which is more related to general skin care and not as predictive of impaired skin integrity as the statement in Option B.

2. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

3. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

4. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use a nicotine patch.
• B. Reassure the client that it is almost time for another break.
• C. Have the client leave the unit with another staff member.
• D. Review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks and provide concrete information about the schedule. Suggesting a nicotine patch (Option A) is not suitable as the client wants to smoke. Reassuring the client about another break (Option B) does not address the client's frustration and does not promote effective communication. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Option C) is not appropriate as it goes against unit rules and does not address the client's concerns. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client to provide clarity and address the client's frustration effectively.

5. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?

• A. Confront the client about the behavior.
• B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
• C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
• D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.

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