Nursing Elites

1. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

2. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

• A. EEG
• B. EKG
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

3. By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the nurse is affecting which step in the chain of infection?

• A. Mode of transmission
• B. Portal of entry
• C. Reservoir
• D. Portal of exit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the nurse rolls contaminated gloves inside-out, they are manipulating the mode of transmission in the chain of infection. The gloves, which are contaminated, act as a vehicle for transferring pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a potential portal of entry. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the action of rolling contaminated gloves does not directly relate to the portal of entry, reservoir, or portal of exit in the chain of infection.

4. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?

• A. Anger
• B. Apathy
• C. Anxiety
• D. Agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.

5. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
• B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
• C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
• D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

Similar Questions