NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which feeling would be difficult for a client with major depression to express?
- A. Need for comforting
- B. Anger toward others
- C. Remorse for past behaviors
- D. Feelings of low self-esteem
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with major depression often have difficulty expressing anger toward others as their anger is typically directed inwards. Expressing the need for comforting is common among clients with major depression. They can also articulate remorse for past behaviors to an excessive degree. Furthermore, feelings of low self-esteem can be openly expressed by clients with major depression. Therefore, the difficulty in expressing anger toward others is the most appropriate choice as clients with major depression tend to internalize their anger.
2. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
3. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?
- A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
- B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
- C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
- D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.
4. A client asks the nurse, 'Should I tell my partner that I just found out I'm human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive?' Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. Do not tell your partner unless asked.
- B. This is a decision you alone can make.
- C. You are having difficulty deciding what to say.
- D. Tell your partner that you don't know how you became sick.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge the client's struggle in deciding what to communicate to their partner. By stating 'You are having difficulty deciding what to say,' the nurse validates the client's feelings and encourages further discussion. Option A is incorrect as it suggests withholding information unless asked, which may not align with ethical principles of honesty and transparency in relationships. Option B, while acknowledging the client's autonomy, does not provide direct support or guidance. Option D is inappropriate as it involves dishonesty by suggesting telling the partner an untruthful reason for the illness.
5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
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