Nursing Elites

1. Which feeling would be difficult for a client with major depression to express?

• A. Need for comforting
• B. Anger toward others
• C. Remorse for past behaviors
• D. Feelings of low self-esteem

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with major depression often have difficulty expressing anger toward others as their anger is typically directed inwards. Expressing the need for comforting is common among clients with major depression. They can also articulate remorse for past behaviors to an excessive degree. Furthermore, feelings of low self-esteem can be openly expressed by clients with major depression. Therefore, the difficulty in expressing anger toward others is the most appropriate choice as clients with major depression tend to internalize their anger.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

• A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
• B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
• C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
• D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.

3. Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?

• A. Explains the goals of the procedure
• B. Displays few signs of anticipatory grief
• C. Participates in learning perioperative care
• D. Verbalizes acceptance of permanent dependency needs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.

4. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

• A. Pick's disease
• B. Syphilis
• C. Encephalopathy
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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