NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?
- A. Focusing on the client's physical needs
- B. Encouraging the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss
- C. Reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again
- D. Encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.
2. A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Administer the prescribed maximum dose of pain medication.
- B. Talk with the client about her feelings related to her own death.
- C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider about initiating antidepressant therapy.
- D. Refer the client to the ethics committee of her local healthcare facility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's feelings about her death and determine the extent to which this statement expresses her true feelings. The client may need additional pain management, but further assessment is needed before implementing option A. Option B is the correct response as it focuses on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option C is premature as initiating antidepressant therapy without a thorough assessment may not be appropriate. Option D is not the best course of action at this point; involving the ethics committee should be considered only after a comprehensive evaluation and discussion with the client.
3. A client had a first-trimester abortion and has been unable to function for 3 months. Which type of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Complex bereavement
- B. Anticipatory
- C. Disenfranchised
- D. Complicated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing disenfranchised grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief over a loss that is not socially recognized or acknowledged. In this case, grief after an abortion falls into this category. It can lead to prolonged emotional distress as the loss may not be openly acknowledged or supported by others. Complex bereavement is characterized by dysfunctional grieving that extends beyond 12 months. Anticipatory grief occurs when the loss is expected or predictable, allowing individuals to start the grieving process before the actual loss. Complicated grief is marked by an inability to progress through the grief stages, leading to intense feelings of depression, anger, and emptiness, often coupled with a preoccupation with the deceased.
4. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
5. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
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