NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
- A. Projection
- B. Sublimation
- C. Compensation
- D. Rationalization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.
2. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?
- A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
- B. A constructive method of accepting reality
- C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
- D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.
3. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?
- A. Dealing with loss of friends
- B. Commitment to parenthood
- C. Setting career goals
- D. Solidification of sense of self
Correct answer: A
Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.
4. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?
- A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
- B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
- C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
- D. Discuss reasons for the client's suspicions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.
5. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the healthcare provider as soon as possible?
- A. Daily black, sticky stool
- B. Daily dark brown stool
- C. Firm brown stool every other day
- D. Soft light brown stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Daily black, sticky stool.' Black sticky stool (melena) is indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious condition that requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Options B and D, 'Daily dark brown stool' and 'Soft light brown stool twice a day,' respectively, represent variations of normal stool characteristics and do not raise immediate concerns about the client's health. Option C, 'Firm brown stool every other day,' suggests constipation, which is of lesser concern and can be managed with interventions.
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