Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

2. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
• B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
• C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
• D. Do you smoke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

3. Which nursing intervention helps foster the development of a trusting parent-child relationship?

• A. Placing the infant in a crib with a mobile or soft toy
• B. Discouraging eye contact when the infant is irritable
• C. Putting objects several inches in front of the infant for viewing
• D. Encouraging face-to-face contact between the parents and infant

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging face-to-face contact between parents and infants is crucial in fostering a trusting parent-child relationship. Eye-to-eye contact promotes interaction and bonding, helping the infant develop trust in their caregivers. Placing the infant in a crib with a mobile or soft toy may provide stimulation but does not directly contribute to the emotional bonding necessary for trust. Discouraging eye contact when the infant is irritable can hinder communication and connection. Putting objects in front of the infant for viewing is beneficial for visual stimulation but does not actively promote the emotional attachment and trust that face-to-face contact does.

4. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
• C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.

5. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

• A. EEG
• B. EKG
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

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