Nursing Elites

1. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?

• A. Attempts to minimize the illness
• B. Lacks an emotional response to the illness
• C. Refuses to discuss the condition with the client's spouse
• D. Expresses displeasure with the prescribed activity program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.

2. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?

• A. Severe clinical depression
• B. Substance abuse disorders
• C. Antisocial personality disorder
• D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.

3. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

4. A client who is to undergo dilation and curettage and conization of the cervix for cancer appears tense and anxious. Which approach would the nurse use to support the client emotionally?

• A. Explaining that these procedures are considered minor surgery
• B. Asking whether something is troubling the client and whether she'd like to talk about it
• C. Stating that the procedures are routine and asking what the client is really worried about
• D. Explaining that everyone is fearful before the surgery even though there is little reason to worry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to support the client emotionally is to ask whether something is troubling the client and if she would like to talk about it. This approach acknowledges the client's anxiety and encourages communication without dismissing her feelings. Option A, explaining that the procedures are minor surgery, may invalidate the client's emotions. Option C assumes the client is worried about something specific, which may not be the case, leading to miscommunication. Option D provides false reassurance and may hinder open communication by dismissing the client's feelings as unwarranted.

5. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?

• A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
• B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
• C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
• D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.

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