Nursing Elites

1. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
• B. Confirm placement of the tube
• C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
• D. Turn off the intermittent suction device

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.

2. When caring for a patient who speaks a different language and an interpreter is unavailable, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Talk slowly to ensure clear understanding
• B. Speak loudly in close proximity to the patient's ears
• C. Repeat important words to emphasize their significance
• D. Use simple gestures to demonstrate meaning while communicating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When faced with a language barrier and lacking an interpreter, using simple gestures can help convey meaning to the patient. This approach can assist in basic communication and understanding. Talking slowly may not be effective if the patient does not understand the language, and speaking loudly can be perceived as aggressive or intimidating. Repeating words may not aid comprehension if the patient is unfamiliar with the language. Therefore, using gestures is the most appropriate option in this situation.

3. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?

• A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
• B. I don't understand what you mean.'
• C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
• D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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