NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?
- A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
- B. Confirm placement of the tube
- C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
- D. Turn off the intermittent suction device
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.
2. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
3. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home, I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.
4. After a client has a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes that both she and her partner are visibly upset and crying. Which statement would be a therapeutic response?
- A. 'I'll be here if you want to talk.''
- B. 'Try to relax"?it'll speed up the healing process.''
- C. 'With any luck, you'll get pregnant again soon.''
- D. 'It's best that this happened early rather than having the baby die after it was born.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A therapeutic response in this situation is to offer support and empathy. Saying, 'I'll be here if you want to talk' gives the client and her partner the opportunity to express their emotions and seek comfort. It acknowledges their distress and assures them of the nurse's availability. Choice B, advising to relax to speed up the healing process, dismisses their current emotions and may hinder open communication. Choice C, suggesting getting pregnant again soon, minimizes their grief over the loss and may not be what the couple needs to hear at that moment. Choice D, stating it's best that the miscarriage happened early, is insensitive as it invalidates the couple's feelings of loss and grief. Grieving is a natural process, and the timing of the loss does not diminish its significance.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access