an increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.

2. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

3. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

4. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

5. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency significantly lowers serum albumin levels. Albumin, derived from protein breakdown, is produced by the liver when adequate amino acids are available. Due to its long half-life, acute protein loss minimally affects serum albumin levels. In contrast, serum transferrin, with a shorter half-life of 8 to 10 days, decreases with acute protein deficiency and is not a reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Elevated hemoglobin levels may occur in conditions like dehydration or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, making it an unreliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. High cholesterol levels are not directly linked to protein malnutrition and do not serve as a reliable indicator. Therefore, the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition among the options provided is a low serum albumin level.

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