Nursing Elites

1. Which defense mechanism is considered a conscious measure used to cope with anxiety?

• A. Undoing
• B. Projection
• C. Suppression
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Suppression. Suppression is a conscious defense mechanism in which an individual intentionally avoids thinking about disturbing problems, wishes, feelings, or experiences. It is a way to cope with anxiety by actively pushing aside unwanted thoughts or emotions. Undoing, on the other hand, is an unconscious defense mechanism where one uses words or behaviors to symbolically make amends for unacceptable thoughts or actions. Projection is also an unconscious defense mechanism involving falsely attributing one's own unacceptable impulses to others. Intellectualization, another unconscious defense mechanism, involves using intellect or thinking to avoid dealing with emotionally charged feelings.

2. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

3. The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence and denies any family history of epilepsy. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.
• B. The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.
• C. Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.
• D. Long-term treatment will prevent future seizures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is, 'The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.' There are various potential causes for a childhood seizure, such as fever, central nervous system conditions, trauma, metabolic alterations, and idiopathic reasons. It's essential not to jump to conclusions about epilepsy based on one seizure. Options A, C, and D provide premature or inaccurate information. Option A may give false reassurance without proper evaluation, option C assumes one seizure guarantees no recurrence, and option D oversimplifies treatment outcomes.

4. A client says, 'I hear a man speaking from the corner of the room. Do you hear him, too?' Which response is best?

• A. What is he saying to you? Does it make any sense?
• B. Yes, I hear him. What do you think he is saying?
• C. No one is in the corner of the room. Can't you see that?
• D. No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response is D: 'No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.' This response acknowledges the client's experience without validating the hallucination. The nurse expresses empathy by acknowledging the client's feelings ('that must be upsetting for you'), showing understanding and support. Choice A focuses on the content of the hallucination, which may inadvertently reinforce the delusion. Choice B validates the hallucination by agreeing that the nurse also hears the man. Choice C denies the client's experience and can lead to further distress by invalidating their perception.

5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

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