NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.
2. When developing Jerry's plan of care, which of the following would NOT be helpful to include?
- A. Limiting choices
- B. Providing structure
- C. Encouraging patient input
- D. Ensuring availability of PRN medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limiting choices would not be helpful in Jerry's plan of care. Providing options, even if among limited choices, offers the patient a sense of independence rather than imposing control. Providing structure is crucial, especially in transitioning from a psychiatric to a medical-surgical unit. Encouraging patient input in identifying triggers and effective methods for managing aggressive impulses is essential for empowerment and individualized care. Ensuring the availability and prompt delivery of PRN medications gives the patient a sense of control and security, assuring access to necessary medication when needed.
3. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
- D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
4. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
- A. Fixed delusion
- B. Magical thinking
- C. Pathological regression
- D. Command hallucination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
5. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Make the client comfortable and allow the client to sleep.
- B. Assess the client's neurologic status.
- C. Notify the surgeon about the comment.
- D. Ask the client's family to co-sign the operative permit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement about aliens coming to get them could indicate confusion, which raises concerns about their neurologic status. Since informed consent for surgery requires the client to be mentally competent, the nurse should assess the client's neurologic status to ensure they understand and can legally provide consent. Option A of making the client comfortable and letting them sleep does not address the potential neurologic issue. If the nurse finds the client to be confused, it is essential to inform the surgeon and seek permission from the next of kin if necessary. Therefore, assessing the client's neurologic status is the priority to ensure the client's ability to consent to the surgery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access