Nursing Elites

1. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?

• A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
• B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
• C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward from underneath the axillae.
• D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the correct procedure for assisting a client from the bed to a chair. By positioning the nurse's feet apart and aligning the knees with the client's knees, the nurse maintains a stable base of support while pivoting the client into the chair. This technique minimizes the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client. Placing the chair at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the head of the bed, provides a clear path for the client to move. Option C is incorrect because lifting a client under the axillae can potentially cause nerve damage and strain. Option D is also incorrect as it involves an unsafe method of moving the client and can lead to injuries or accidents.

2. When the health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation as the older adult is capable of making decisions.
• B. The son cannot waive informed consent for the client since there is no evidence of mental incompetence.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health care providers may be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery, if they carry out a treatment without the client's consent. The client's condition is stable, so the family cannot provide consent without her involvement, making option A incorrect. There is no evidence of mental incompetence in the client, so the son cannot waive informed consent, making option B incorrect. While therapeutic privilege may have been accepted in the past, it is unlikely to be upheld by today's courts, making option C incorrect. It is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from clients before proceeding with any treatment to avoid legal consequences and uphold ethical standards.

3. A client who has been told she needs a hysterectomy for cervical cancer reports being upset about being unable to have a third child. Which action would the nurse take?

• A. Evaluate her willingness to pursue adoption.
• B. Encourage her to focus on her own recovery.
• C. Emphasize that she does have two children already.
• D. Ensure that other treatment options for her are explored.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ensure that other treatment options for the client are explored. While a hysterectomy may be necessary for cervical cancer, conservative management options like cervical conization and laser treatment may allow for future pregnancies. It is crucial for the nurse to inform the client of all available treatment choices. Evaluating the client's willingness to pursue adoption is not directly addressing the client's concerns about fertility. Encouraging the client to focus on her own recovery and emphasizing that she already has two children dismiss the client's distress over not being able to have a third child, which is important to acknowledge in a sensitive manner.

4. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

5. Which behavior is most typical for clients with borderline personality disorder?

• A. Arrogant
• B. Eccentric
• C. Impulsive
• D. Dependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impulsive.' Clients with borderline personality disorder often exhibit impulsive, potentially self-damaging behaviors. Arrogance is more characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder, eccentric behavior aligns with schizotypal personality disorder, and dependent behavior is typical of dependent personality disorder. Therefore, the key feature of borderline personality disorder is impulsivity.

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