NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?
- A. Jealousy
- B. Stubbornness
- C. Procrastination
- D. Companionship
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Procrastination, which refers to delaying completing chores or activities, is a common source of stress for 5-year-old clients. At this age, children may start experiencing stress related to the pressure of tasks or expectations. Jealousy and stubbornness are more typical sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients who are still developing social and emotional skills. Companionship, on the other hand, is generally seen as a positive aspect in a child's life and is not typically a source of stress but rather a source of support and comfort.
2. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
4. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
5. Which of the following interventions is essential when working with a client who has antisocial personality disorder?
- A. Monitor intake and output
- B. Set strict limits on behavior
- C. Provide diversion for the client
- D. Limit visits from family or friends
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When working with a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to set strict limits on their behavior. This disorder is characterized by manipulative behavior, impulsivity, and deceitfulness. By setting strict limits, the nurse can establish boundaries to prevent the client from manipulating others or engaging in disruptive behaviors. Monitoring intake and output (Choice A) is not directly related to managing antisocial personality disorder. Providing diversion (Choice C) or limiting visits from family or friends (Choice D) may not address the core issues associated with this disorder, such as manipulation and boundary violations.
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