NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?
- A. Jealousy
- B. Stubbornness
- C. Procrastination
- D. Companionship
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Procrastination, which refers to delaying completing chores or activities, is a common source of stress for 5-year-old clients. At this age, children may start experiencing stress related to the pressure of tasks or expectations. Jealousy and stubbornness are more typical sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients who are still developing social and emotional skills. Companionship, on the other hand, is generally seen as a positive aspect in a child's life and is not typically a source of stress but rather a source of support and comfort.
2. A 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program and is wheelchair-mobile has redness in the sacral area. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
- B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
- C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
- D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, as prolonged pressure on the skin can lead to tissue damage. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on vulnerable areas like the sacrum. Increasing fluid intake can also aid in preventing skin breakdown by maintaining skin hydration. While a vitamin supplement may support overall health, it is not as critical as repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Purchasing a new wheelchair is an expensive intervention and should be considered a last resort after implementing less costly preventive measures.
3. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
4. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
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