Nursing Elites

1. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

• A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
• B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
• C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
• D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

2. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
• B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
• C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
• D. Do you smoke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

3. Which of the following is a nursing intervention for a client who is experiencing an acute panic attack?

• A. Encourage the client to sit down in a quiet environment
• B. Allow the client to direct the situation
• C. Try to focus the client on one aspect of care, such as regulating breathing patterns
• D. Speak in a commanding tone of voice to get the client's attention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assisting a client with an acute panic attack, the primary goal is to help reduce their anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to focus on one controllable aspect, like regulating breathing patterns, can aid in calming them down. This intervention helps the client to regain control over their breathing, which can alleviate some of the symptoms associated with panic attacks. Options A and B are incorrect because allowing the client to direct the situation or sit down in a quiet environment may not be beneficial during an acute panic attack. Option D is inappropriate as speaking in a commanding tone can further escalate the client's anxiety rather than helping to calm them down.

4. A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?

• A. Implement suicide precautions.
• B. Frequently offer high-calorie snacks and fluids.
• C. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths.
• D. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.

5. What is the similarity between the stage-crisis theory proposed by Havighurst and the psychosocial development theory formulated by Erikson?

• A. Based on developmental tasks
• B. Incorporate eight stages of development
• C. Based on changes in a person's thoughts and emotions
• D. Emphasize that a child's growth is directed by individual gene activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both Havighurst's stage-crisis theory and Erikson's psychosocial development theory are grounded in the concept of developmental tasks. They both emphasize that successful completion of specific tasks at various life stages is crucial for healthy development. While Erikson's theory consists of eight stages of psychosocial development, Havighurst's theory comprises six stages. The idea that a child's growth is guided by individual gene activity is attributed to Gesell's theory, not Havighurst or Erikson. The emphasis on changes in a person's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors shaping beliefs about morality aligns with moral development theory, not specifically with Havighurst's or Erikson's theories.

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