a client experiences post partum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins following administration of iv fluids and 500 ml of whole blood her h
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

2. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.

3. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

4. A client has just died, and their son states, 'She was the most wonderful mother. There was no one who was a better mother than she was. She was perfect.' Which stage of grief is this son experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The son is experiencing the idealization stage of grief. During this stage, individuals tend to idealize the deceased person and remember them in a highly positive light, overlooking any negative aspects. This idealization serves as a coping mechanism to deal with the loss. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of the loss. Choice B, Anger, is incorrect as it involves feelings of resentment and frustration. Choice D, Shock, is incorrect as shock is the initial reaction to the loss and is different from idealizing the deceased individual.

5. A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Joining a support group of individuals facing similar circumstances can provide valuable support and the opportunity to share experiences, making it the most appropriate response. The response suggesting counseling to decrease feelings of guilt is premature because the partner did not directly express guilt and it may not be the most immediate need. Suggesting involvement in volunteer work at this time fails to address the partner's current emotional distress and may come across as dismissive. Offering false reassurance by stating 'this, too, shall pass' does not validate the partner's feelings and minimizes the seriousness of their concerns.

Similar Questions

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