NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?
- A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
- B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
- C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
- D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.
2. Which type of toy would be most suitable for enhancing the development of a toddler-age client?
- A. Clay
- B. Rattle
- C. Video games
- D. Musical mobile
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most suitable toy to recommend for enhancing the development of a toddler-age child is clay. Clay promotes creativity and fine motor skills in toddlers. A rattle is typically recommended for infants as it aids in sensory development. Video games, which are often battery-operated, are not suitable for toddlers due to potential negative effects on development. A musical mobile is more appropriate for infants as it can aid in soothing and sensory stimulation.
3. A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?
- A. Revising the client's will and planning a visit to a friend
- B. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death
- C. Seeking second, third, and fourth medical opinions
- D. Refusing to follow treatments and stating they won't help anyway
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.
4. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?
- A. Only refer to the client by gender
- B. Identify the client only by age
- C. Avoid using the client's name
- D. Discuss the client another time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time to ensure confidentiality. It is important to maintain the privacy of the client's information, so discussing sensitive topics like depression in a public area where conversations can be overheard is not appropriate. While options A, B, and C may seem like ways to protect the client's identity, they do not guarantee confidentiality since details like gender or age can still lead to identification. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize privacy and confidentiality by finding a more suitable time and location to have a private discussion about the client's concerns.
5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
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