Nursing Elites

1. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

4. Which characteristic would be a concern for the nurse when caring for a client with schizophrenia in the early phase of treatment?

• A. Continual pacing
• B. Suspicious feelings
• C. Inability to socialize with others
• D. Disturbed relationship with the family

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the early phase of treatment for a client with schizophrenia, the nurse needs to address the client's suspicious feelings to establish trust and create a therapeutic environment. Suspicious feelings can hinder the development of a positive nurse-client relationship. Continual pacing, while a symptom, can be managed by the nurse and does not directly impact the therapeutic relationship. Inability to socialize with others and a disturbed relationship with the family are important factors but are of lesser concern in the early treatment phase as compared to addressing suspicious feelings to build trust and rapport.

5. While communicating with a client, the nurse determines that the client has realized the harmful effects of alcohol consumption and plans to stop drinking within 6 months. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of change would the nurse correlate the client's behavior with?

• A. Action
• B. Preparation
• C. Maintenance
• D. Contemplation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The transtheoretical model of change defines changing patterns in individuals across five stages based on their readiness to change. The stages are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In the contemplation stage, the client acknowledges the benefits of change and considers making the change within the next 6 months. This aligns with the client's realization of the harmful effects of alcohol consumption and intent to stop drinking within 6 months. The action stage involves actively making changes, the preparation stage includes goal-setting with an intention to change within 60 days, and the maintenance stage focuses on sustaining changed behavior for at least 6 months and taking preventive measures to avoid relapse. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's behavior aligns with the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of change.

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