NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?
- A. Confront the client about the behavior.
- B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
- C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
- D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.
2. What initial response would the nurse give to a husband who is upset that his wife's alcohol withdrawal delirium has persisted for a second day?
- A. "I see that you're worried. We're using medication to ease your wife's discomfort."?
- B. "This is expected. I suggest that you go home because there's nothing you can do to help."?
- C. "If you're afraid that she will die, I assure you, very few alcoholics die during detoxification."?
- D. "If you are concerned that she is uncomfortable, I'm sure that she's not in pain."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the husband's feelings and provide information on the treatment plan to alleviate his concerns. This approach validates his emotions and educates him on the steps being taken to help his wife, promoting understanding and reducing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the husband's worries and implies helplessness, potentially increasing his distress. Choice C is inappropriate as it introduces the concept of death, which can heighten fear and anxiety in the husband. Choice D is not recommended as it provides reassurance about the wife's pain without accurate knowledge of her discomfort, which could undermine trust and communication between the nurse and the husband.
3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
4. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
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