Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
• B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
• C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
• D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

2. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

3. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?

• A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
• B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
• C. Recent withdrawal from friends
• D. Disturbance of family dynamics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.

4. Which response would the nurse make at lunchtime to a client who is sitting alone with the head slightly tilted as if listening to something?

• A. "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime."
• B. "Are the voices bothering you again?"
• C. "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime."
• D. "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement, "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room," demonstrates setting limits and providing support. Hallucinations can be frightening, and the nurse's presence offers support and reality without focusing on the hallucination directly. Choice A, "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime," does not recognize the client's need for support and direction. Choice B, "Are the voices bothering you again?", makes a judgment without sufficient evidence and overly focuses on the hallucination, failing to address the client's need for support and direction. Choice C, "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime," does not acknowledge the client's need for reality, support, and direction, and may come across as threatening.

5. Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Clinical depression
• B. Substance abuse disorder
• C. Antisocial personality disorder
• D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.

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