NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.
2. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.
- A. prevent it
- B. restrain the patient
- C. medicate the patient
- D. isolate the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.
3. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
- C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.
4. What initial response would the nurse give to a husband who is upset that his wife's alcohol withdrawal delirium has persisted for a second day?
- A. "I see that you're worried. We're using medication to ease your wife's discomfort."?
- B. "This is expected. I suggest that you go home because there's nothing you can do to help."?
- C. "If you're afraid that she will die, I assure you, very few alcoholics die during detoxification."?
- D. "If you are concerned that she is uncomfortable, I'm sure that she's not in pain."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the husband's feelings and provide information on the treatment plan to alleviate his concerns. This approach validates his emotions and educates him on the steps being taken to help his wife, promoting understanding and reducing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the husband's worries and implies helplessness, potentially increasing his distress. Choice C is inappropriate as it introduces the concept of death, which can heighten fear and anxiety in the husband. Choice D is not recommended as it provides reassurance about the wife's pain without accurate knowledge of her discomfort, which could undermine trust and communication between the nurse and the husband.
5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
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