a 20 year old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days she states i have been told that it is harmful to b
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

2. The client is in the withdrawal phase of adjusting to the change in body image. Which reaction cues the nurse to realize this when caring for a client who has lost an arm in a motor vehicle accident?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's recognition of the reality and subsequent anxiety cues the nurse that the client is in the withdrawal phase of adjusting to the change in body image. During this phase, the client may refuse to discuss the change and may use withdrawal as a coping mechanism. The grieving period typically occurs during the acknowledgement phase, where the client and family come to terms with the change in physical appearance. Initially, shock and depersonalization may lead the client to talk as if another person is affected by the change. Finally, in the rehabilitation stage, the client is ready to learn techniques to adapt to the change, such as through the use of prosthetics or modifying lifestyles and goals.

3. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

4. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.

5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

Similar Questions

Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
A staff nurse expresses frustration that a Native American patient always has several family members at the bedside. Which action by the charge nurse is most appropriate?
After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?
A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses