Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
• B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
• C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
• D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

2. Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?

• A. Undoing
• B. Projection
• C. Introjection
• D. Displacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.

3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?

• A. Galactorrhea
• B. Gynecomastia
• C. Amenorrhea
• D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.

4. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?

• A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
• B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
• C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward from underneath the axillae.
• D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the correct procedure for assisting a client from the bed to a chair. By positioning the nurse's feet apart and aligning the knees with the client's knees, the nurse maintains a stable base of support while pivoting the client into the chair. This technique minimizes the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client. Placing the chair at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the head of the bed, provides a clear path for the client to move. Option C is incorrect because lifting a client under the axillae can potentially cause nerve damage and strain. Option D is also incorrect as it involves an unsafe method of moving the client and can lead to injuries or accidents.

5. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.

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