NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask the patient what treatments are likely to help
- B. Massage the patient's abdomen until the pain subsides.
- C. Administer prescribed medications to decrease the cramping
- D. Offer to contact a curandero(a) for a visit to the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a Hispanic patient presents with abdominal cramping related to empacho, it is crucial for the nurse to first understand the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences before initiating any interventions. In the case of a culture-bound syndrome like empacho, it is essential to acknowledge and respect the patient's cultural background. While options like administering medications, arranging a visit by a curandero(a), or providing massage may have potential benefits, assessing the patient's beliefs ensures that interventions are culturally sensitive and aligned with the patient's values. By engaging the patient in a discussion about potential treatments, the nurse can gather valuable information to tailor care effectively, promoting trust and collaboration in the healthcare process. This patient-centered approach enhances the quality of care and fosters a culturally competent nursing practice. Therefore, asking the patient about preferred treatments is the most appropriate initial action to address the patient's condition effectively.
2. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
3. A neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation and weighing 3 lb (1361 g) is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). When would the nurse take the neonate's mother to visit the infant?
- A. When the infant's condition has stabilized
- B. When the infant is out of immediate danger
- C. When the primary health care provider has provided written permission
- D. When the mother is well enough to be taken to the NICU
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mother should see her infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and begin bonding. Delaying the visit may impede maternal-infant bonding. The timing of the mother's visit should be based on her physical and emotional readiness, not solely on the infant's condition or the need for written permission. The nurse can independently facilitate the mother's visit without requiring a prescription from the primary healthcare provider.
4. After undergoing dilation and curettage following an early miscarriage, a client is crying. Which response would the nurse give?
- A. ''This must be a very difficult experience for you to deal with.''
- B. 'You'll have other children to take the place of the child you lost.''
- C. 'Of course you're sad now, but at least you know you can get pregnant.''
- D. 'I know how you feel, but when a woman miscarries, it's usually for the best.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's grief without judgment and provides validation. Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests replacing the lost child with other children, which is insensitive and dismissive of the client's current loss. Choice C minimizes the client's feelings by focusing on the ability to get pregnant rather than addressing the emotional impact of the miscarriage. Choice D is dismissive and patronizing, suggesting that the miscarriage was for the best, which can be hurtful and diminish the client's grief.
5. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home, I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access