a hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho which action should the nurse take first
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a Hispanic patient presents with abdominal cramping related to empacho, it is crucial for the nurse to first understand the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences before initiating any interventions. In the case of a culture-bound syndrome like empacho, it is essential to acknowledge and respect the patient's cultural background. While options like administering medications, arranging a visit by a curandero(a), or providing massage may have potential benefits, assessing the patient's beliefs ensures that interventions are culturally sensitive and aligned with the patient's values. By engaging the patient in a discussion about potential treatments, the nurse can gather valuable information to tailor care effectively, promoting trust and collaboration in the healthcare process. This patient-centered approach enhances the quality of care and fosters a culturally competent nursing practice. Therefore, asking the patient about preferred treatments is the most appropriate initial action to address the patient's condition effectively.

2. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.

3. On the first postpartum day, a client whose infant is rooming in asks the nurse to return her baby to the nursery and bring the baby to her only at feeding times. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stating that it seems that the client has changed her mind opens communication and allows the client to verbalize her thoughts and feelings. This response acknowledges the client's request without being judgmental. Stating that the client is having difficulty caring for the baby is presumptuous and could make the client defensive. Informing other nurses of the client's decision without exploring the reasons behind it may not address the client's concerns. Although the client may be tired, assuming this without further discussion may overlook the client's true feelings and needs, hindering effective communication and support.

4. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

Similar Questions

Which assessment data would be most important to obtain from an Asian-American client with major depressive disorder who maintains traditional cultural beliefs and values?
During a scheduled health maintenance visit, which common source of stress for a 6-year-old client would the nurse include in the teaching session?
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?
A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?
A term used to describe members of the same group based on physiological characteristics, such as skin color or body structure, is known as:

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses