NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
 - B. Depression with melancholic features
 - C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
 - D. Bipolar depression
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
2. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?
- A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
 - B. Confirm placement of the tube
 - C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
 - D. Turn off the intermittent suction device
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.
3. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
 - B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
 - C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
 - D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
4. Which behavioral characteristic describes the domestic abuser?
- A. Alcoholic
 - B. Overconfident
 - C. High tolerance for frustrations
 - D. Low self-esteem
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low self-esteem.' Domestic abusers often exhibit behaviors stemming from their own experiences of abuse, leading to a cycle of violence. They commonly have low self-esteem, which drives their need to exert control and power over their partners. Choice A, 'Alcoholic,' is not a defining behavioral characteristic of domestic abusers. Choice B, 'Overconfident,' is not typically associated with abusers who often exhibit insecurity and control issues. Choice C, 'High tolerance for frustrations,' is not a primary characteristic of domestic abusers; rather, they often have a low tolerance for situations that challenge their need for control.
5. Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?
- A. Undoing
 - B. Projection
 - C. Introjection
 - D. Displacement
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.
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