Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

• A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
• B. Depression with melancholic features
• C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
• D. Bipolar depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

2. A 5-year-old child has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initiative vs. guilt.' According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, children aged 3-6 years old are in the stage of initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the environment. They develop a sense of purpose and direction, but may also experience feelings of guilt if they believe their actions have caused harm or conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Trust vs. mistrust' is the first stage for infants, 'Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is the second stage for toddlers, and 'Intimacy vs. isolation' is a stage that occurs later in adulthood.

3. Which of the following is a symptom associated with sensory overload?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Emotional lability
• D. Depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Disorientation is a common symptom associated with sensory overload. When an individual experiences sensory overload, their brain may become overwhelmed with excessive information, leading to disorientation. This can manifest as an inability to concentrate, racing thoughts, and restless behavior. Sensory overload occurs when a person is unable to either control the amount of environmental stimuli they are exposed to or process the stimuli effectively. Drowsiness, emotional lability, and depression are not typical symptoms of sensory overload. Drowsiness may indicate fatigue or boredom, emotional lability refers to rapid and exaggerated changes in mood, and depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness.

4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

5. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

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