Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

• A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
• B. Depression with melancholic features
• C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
• D. Bipolar depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

2. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

3. Which is an example of an intentional tort?

• A. Negligence
• B. Malpractice
• C. Breach of duty
• D. False imprisonment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: False imprisonment is a clear example of an intentional tort where one person deliberately confines another without lawful justification. It involves intentional, wrongful restraint of a person's freedom of movement. Negligence, on the other hand, is an unintentional tort that occurs when someone fails to exercise reasonable care, resulting in harm to others. Malpractice, which involves professional negligence, is also classified as an unintentional tort as it is a failure to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession. Breach of duty, while a legal concept, is not an example of an intentional tort. It refers to a failure to fulfill a legal obligation or duty owed to another party, often leading to legal consequences, but it is not categorized as an intentional tort.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

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