Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

• A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
• B. Depression with melancholic features
• C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
• D. Bipolar depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

2. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

3. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction for the past week?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Albumin
• C. Calcium
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum sodium levels carefully when they have been on nasogastric (NG) tube suction for an extended period. Prolonged NG suctioning can lead to fluid loss and subsequent hyponatremia. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications. White blood cell count (Option A), albumin (Option B), and calcium (Option C) are not typically affected by prolonged NG suctioning. Therefore, these values are not the priority for monitoring in this situation.

4. Which behavior indicates that the client has learned the most effective method to cope with anger?

• A. Goes for a long jog
• B. Talks about the anger
• C. Goes outside and screams
• D. Focuses on cause of anger

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Talks about the anger.' This response indicates that the client has learned a positive coping method, as discussing angry feelings is a healthier way of dealing with anger. Talking about anger allows for expression and communication, leading to a better understanding of the emotions involved. Going for a long jog or screaming outside may provide temporary relief, but they do not address the root cause or help in processing the emotions effectively. Focusing solely on the cause of anger without expressing feelings may lead to increased frustration and escalation of anger, rather than promoting constructive coping mechanisms.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

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