NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
2. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?
- A. To teach arm exercises
- B. To prevent social isolation
- C. To meet her physical needs
- D. To view her surgical incision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.
3. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
4. A client decides to have hospice care rather than undergo an extensive surgical procedure. Which ethical principle does the client's behavior illustrate?
- A. Justice
- B. Veracity
- C. Autonomy
- D. Beneficence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Autonomy.' Autonomy refers to an individual's right to make decisions about their own care. In this scenario, the client is choosing hospice care over surgery, demonstrating their autonomy in making healthcare choices. Justice involves fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and services, which is not the primary ethical principle illustrated in this case. Veracity pertains to truthfulness and honesty, which is not directly related to the client's decision-making process. Beneficence refers to the duty to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the central ethical principle demonstrated by the client's decision for hospice care.
5. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access