while reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication a 72 year old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual dri
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

2. Which of the following is an advantage of working with psychiatric clients in a group setting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Group therapy is a valuable approach in mental health treatment. Working with psychiatric clients in a group setting offers various benefits. Clients in a group setting can learn from others when their behaviors are inappropriate in a safe and trusting environment. This environment allows individuals to express thoughts and feelings without fear of judgment or criticism, fostering a supportive atmosphere. Through interactions with peers, clients can gain insight into their own behaviors and learn alternative ways of coping. Choice A is incorrect as the presence and support of a nurse are typically important in group therapy sessions. Choice B is incorrect as group settings provide structure and rules to ensure a safe space for clients to express themselves. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining confidentiality is crucial in group therapy to build trust and encourage open sharing.

3. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time to ensure confidentiality. It is important to maintain the privacy of the client's information, so discussing sensitive topics like depression in a public area where conversations can be overheard is not appropriate. While options A, B, and C may seem like ways to protect the client's identity, they do not guarantee confidentiality since details like gender or age can still lead to identification. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize privacy and confidentiality by finding a more suitable time and location to have a private discussion about the client's concerns.

4. Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

Similar Questions

A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about cognitive development at this age?
Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?
According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
Which defense mechanism is considered a conscious measure used to cope with anxiety?

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