Nursing Elites

1. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

3. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

• A. Bulimia
• B. Anorexia
• C. Orthorexia
• D. Binge eating disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

4. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

• A. Pick's disease
• B. Syphilis
• C. Encephalopathy
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

5. What action would the nurse take for a 4-year-old child who is called to the operating room for a planned myringotomy?

• A. Removing the child's undergarments
• B. Placing the child's toys on the bedside table
• C. Allowing the child to climb onto the stretcher
• D. Having the parents accompany the child to the operating suite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action is to have the parents accompany the child to the operating suite. Current practice encourages parents to stay with the child as long as possible to reduce stress related to a frightening experience. Removing the child's undergarments is usually not necessary for a myringotomy procedure. Placing the child's toys on the bedside table is important, especially a favorite one, for comfort until sedation is induced. Allowing the child to climb onto the stretcher may not be safe or appropriate as the child is too young to do so independently.

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