NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?
- A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."?
- B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."?
- C. "It's the other entire guy's fault! He was going too fast."?
- D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, '"I don't remember anything about what happened to me."?' Suppression involves willfully putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is purposely choosing not to remember details of the traumatic event to avoid dealing with the associated emotions. Choice B, '"I'd rather not talk about it right now,"?' suggests avoidance or deflection rather than active suppression. Choice C, '"It's the other entire guy's fault! He was going too fast,"?' indicates blaming someone else for the situation, which is a form of defense mechanism known as externalization. Choice D, '"My mother is heartbroken about this,"?' expresses empathy towards the mother's emotions and does not demonstrate suppression of personal feelings.
2. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?
- A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
- B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
- C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
- D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.
3. A teenager begins to cry while talking with the nurse about the problem of not being able to make friends. Which is the correct therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Sitting quietly with the client
- B. Telling the client that crying is not helpful
- C. Suggesting that the client play a board game
- D. Recommending how the client can change this situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct therapeutic nursing intervention in this situation is sitting quietly with the client. This approach conveys empathy, acceptance, and a willingness to listen, which can help the teenager feel supported and understood. It is important for the nurse to create a safe space for the client to express their emotions without judgment. Telling the client that crying is not helpful dismisses their feelings and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Suggesting a board game as a distraction may prevent the client from fully exploring and addressing their emotions about the issue. Recommending how the client can change the situation may be premature at this stage, as the priority is to provide emotional support and establish trust before delving into problem-solving.
4. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Error in judgment
- C. Delusion of persecution
- D. Self-accusatory delusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'
5. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access