NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?
- A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."?
- B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."?
- C. "It's the other entire guy's fault! He was going too fast."?
- D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, '"I don't remember anything about what happened to me."?' Suppression involves willfully putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is purposely choosing not to remember details of the traumatic event to avoid dealing with the associated emotions. Choice B, '"I'd rather not talk about it right now,"?' suggests avoidance or deflection rather than active suppression. Choice C, '"It's the other entire guy's fault! He was going too fast,"?' indicates blaming someone else for the situation, which is a form of defense mechanism known as externalization. Choice D, '"My mother is heartbroken about this,"?' expresses empathy towards the mother's emotions and does not demonstrate suppression of personal feelings.
2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
3. Which of the following is an example of an opioid?
- A. Mescaline
- B. Diazepam
- C. Phenobarbital
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Opioids are a type of drug classified as narcotics. Nurses working with clients with substance abuse issues often encounter opioids. Opioids have the potential for addiction. Examples of opioids include methadone, codeine, morphine, and hydromorphone. Mescaline (Choice A) is a hallucinogen, not an opioid. Diazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety and other conditions, not an opioid. Phenobarbital (Choice C) is a barbiturate used to treat seizures and insomnia, not an opioid.
4. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
- C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.
5. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Functional incontinence
- C. Fluid volume deficit
- D. High risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.
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