NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?
- A. Scheduling pain medication at regular intervals
- B. Administering the medication only when the pain is severe
- C. Avoiding the administration of medication unless it is requested
- D. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with other women in labor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.
2. Which term refers to a comprehensive set of thoughts or images of oneself?
- A. Global self
- B. Core self-concept
- C. Personal identity
- D. Ideal self
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The term 'Global self' specifically refers to a comprehensive set of thoughts or images about oneself. It encompasses a person's overall perception of themselves, including their beliefs, values, and self-image. 'Core self-concept' is more focused on the fundamental beliefs individuals hold about themselves, 'Personal identity' relates to the characteristics and qualities that distinguish a person from others, and 'Ideal self' represents the person an individual aspires to be rather than their current self-perception. Therefore, 'Global self' is the most appropriate term for the description provided in the question.
3. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
- B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
- C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
- D. Do you smoke?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.
4. Which of these is a one-on-one communication between the nurse and another person?
- A. Small-group communication
- B. Intrapersonal communication
- C. Interpersonal communication
- D. Transpersonal communication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Interpersonal communication is a one-on-one interaction between a nurse and another person that often occurs face-to-face. It involves direct communication between two individuals. Small-group communication involves interaction among a small number of people, not just one-on-one. Intrapersonal communication is internal communication that occurs within an individual's mind. Transpersonal communication involves interactions within a person's spiritual domain, which is beyond individual one-on-one communication.
5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
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