NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?
- A. Scheduling pain medication at regular intervals
- B. Administering the medication only when the pain is severe
- C. Avoiding the administration of medication unless it is requested
- D. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with other women in labor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.
2. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
- A. Feelings of guilt
- B. Need to control others
- C. Desire for punishment
- D. Excessive physical activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
- B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
- C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
- D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.
4. Which term or description would the nurse use for a client who repeatedly performs ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings?
- A. Obsessions
- B. Compulsions
- C. Under personal control
- D. Related to rebelliousness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compulsions.' A compulsion is an uncontrollable, persistent urge to perform an act repetitively to relieve anxiety. In this scenario, the client's repetitive ritualistic behaviors are indicative of compulsions. Obsessions, on the other hand, are persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that cannot be eliminated with logical reasoning. The behavior is not under personal control because avoiding it increases anxiety, making it a defense mechanism. It is not related to rebelliousness; instead, clients engage in these behaviors to reduce anxiety.
5. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
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