a 28 month old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis a few hours later the mother tells the nurse i have to leave now bu
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

3. A client has been diagnosed with depression, and a nurse is assisting them. Which of the following is an example of a short-term outcome as part of the nursing process for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the nursing process for a client with depression, short-term outcomes are goals that need to be achieved before advancing towards long-term outcomes. Identifying life stressors that may be contributing to the depression is a crucial initial step. This process helps the client work through feelings of grief or sadness before moving on to long-term goals like therapy and depression management. Choice A is not a short-term outcome as the lifting of depression symptoms is usually a long-term goal. Choice C focuses on resolving insomnia, which is a symptom of depression, but not directly addressing the root cause. Choice D involves identifying a mental health counselor for ongoing therapy, which is more aligned with a long-term treatment plan, rather than a short-term outcome.

4. Which of the following interventions is essential when working with a client who has antisocial personality disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When working with a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to set strict limits on their behavior. This disorder is characterized by manipulative behavior, impulsivity, and deceitfulness. By setting strict limits, the nurse can establish boundaries to prevent the client from manipulating others or engaging in disruptive behaviors. Monitoring intake and output (Choice A) is not directly related to managing antisocial personality disorder. Providing diversion (Choice C) or limiting visits from family or friends (Choice D) may not address the core issues associated with this disorder, such as manipulation and boundary violations.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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