a 28 month old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis a few hours later the mother tells the nurse i have to leave now bu
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

2. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

3. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

4. A client injured in a motor vehicle accident was brought to the emergency department and taken immediately for a scan. The client's family arrives and asks about the client's condition. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse to provide to the client's family is to assure them that they will be updated as soon as there is relevant information available. This response not only acknowledges the family's concern but also demonstrates the nurse's commitment to keeping them informed. Option A, providing false reassurances, is not advisable as it may impact the family's ability to cope with potential bad news. Option B, stating that the nurse has no information, is not helpful and can cause distress. Option C, directing the family to the primary health care provider, is not ideal as the nurse should strive to communicate directly with the family to establish trust and provide support.

5. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

Similar Questions

A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
During the evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit due to a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. What action should the nurse take?
A client who is to undergo dilation and curettage and conization of the cervix for cancer appears tense and anxious. Which approach would the nurse use to support the client emotionally?
Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses