while working with an obese adolescent it is important for the nurse to recognize that obesity in adolescents is most often associated with what other
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. While working with an obese adolescent, it is important for the nurse to recognize that obesity in adolescents is most often associated with what other behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When addressing obesity in adolescents, it is crucial to consider that poor body image is a common behavior associated with obesity. As adolescents gain weight, they may experience a decrease in self-esteem and a negative perception of their body. This can contribute to a cycle of unhealthy behaviors and impact their overall well-being. The other choices are less commonly associated with obesity in adolescents. Sexual promiscuity may be influenced by various factors unrelated to obesity, dropping out of school is more often linked to academic challenges or social issues, and drug experimentation can stem from a range of influences but is not directly correlated with obesity.

2. A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. What is appropriate teaching by the nurse to help the woman alleviate these symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the third trimester, many women experience heartburn due to the pressure of the growing uterus on the stomach. Elevating the head while sleeping can help prevent gastric contents from refluxing back into the esophagus, thus reducing heartburn symptoms. Drinking small amounts of liquids frequently may exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach distension. Eating the evening meal just before retiring can also worsen heartburn symptoms as lying down shortly after eating can promote reflux. Taking sodium bicarbonate after each meal is not recommended as it can disrupt the body's natural pH balance and lead to other complications.

3. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

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