a client is seen for testing to rule out rocky mountain spotted fever which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

2. A child diagnosed with Hepatitis A is under the care of a healthcare provider. Which of the following precautions would be most important to take to prevent the transmission of this infectious disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial precaution to prevent the transmission of Hepatitis A is to emphasize strict and frequent hand washing. Hepatitis A is a virus that spreads through the oral-fecal route and can survive on human hands. Hand washing is the most effective measure to reduce the risk of transmission. Encouraging the Hepatitis A vaccine for family members and siblings (Choice A) is beneficial for prevention but not as directly impactful as hand washing. While needle precautions (Choice B) are important in healthcare settings, they are not directly relevant to preventing the spread of Hepatitis A. Teaching about the dangers of contaminated food and water (Choice D) is important for general hygiene but may not be as effective as emphasizing hand hygiene in preventing the spread of Hepatitis A.

3. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

4. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.

5. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

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