Nursing Elites

1. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

• A. Fever and rash
• B. Circumoral cyanosis
• C. Elevated glucose levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

2. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?

• A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
• B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
• C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
• D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.

3. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient under contact precautions
• B. Use strict aseptic technique when caring for the wound
• C. Place another dressing to reinforce the first one
• D. Elevate the patient's leg to prevent more drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

4. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

5. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Abdominal tenderness
• C. Left upper quadrant pain
• D. Palpable abdominal mass

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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