Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching parents about the treatment plan for a 2-week-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot. While awaiting future surgery, the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report

• A. Loss of consciousness
• B. Feeding problems
• C. Poor weight gain
• D. Fatigue with crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Loss of consciousness.' While parents should report any concerning observations, they need to call the healthcare provider immediately if the infant experiences a loss of consciousness. This change in alertness may indicate anoxia, which can be life-threatening. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four main features: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot may be delayed or done in stages. Reporting loss of consciousness is crucial due to the potential seriousness of the condition. Feeding problems, poor weight gain, and fatigue with crying are important issues but do not require immediate reporting like loss of consciousness does.

2. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?

• A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
• B. "Strawberry tongue"? is a characteristic sign.
• C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
• D. The pharynx is red and swollen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.

3. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
• B. A widened chest cavity
• C. Clubbed fingers
• D. An increased risk of cardiac failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.

4. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

5. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?

• A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
• B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
• C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
• D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.

Similar Questions