NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
- A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
- B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
- C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
- D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.
2. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?
- A. Yellow-tinged skin
- B. Orange-colored sputum
- C. Thickening of the fingernails
- D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.
3. Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?
- A. Teach about symptoms of variceal bleeding
- B. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing
- C. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake
- D. Review the patient's current medication list
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for a patient diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) would be to review the patient's current medication list. This is important because certain medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be identified and possibly eliminated. Teaching about symptoms of variceal bleeding is not necessary as variceal bleeding is not a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD. Drawing blood for hepatitis serology testing is not indicated as NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis. Discussing the need to increase caloric intake is also not appropriate since weight loss is usually recommended in the management of NAFLD.
4. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.
5. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?
- A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
- B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
- C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
- D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.
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