Nursing Elites

1. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?

• A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
• B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
• C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
• D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.

2. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis does not respond to treatment.
• B. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is caused by a psychiatric problem.
• C. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis requires surgical intervention to improve the problem.
• D. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is usually outgrown without therapeutic intervention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.

3. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

• A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
• B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
• C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
• D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

4. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

5. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?

• A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
• B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
• C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
• D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.

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