NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
2. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?
- A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
- B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
- C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
- D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.
3. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
- A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
- B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
- C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
- D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
4. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
- B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
- D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
5. While auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding?
- A. Inspiratory crackles at the bases
- B. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs
- C. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs
- D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Inspiratory crackles at the bases.' Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds typically heard during inspiration, which aligns with the nurse's finding. Expiratory wheezes are high-pitched sounds and are not consistent with the described auscultation findings. The lower third of both lungs refers to the bases, not the apices, so option C is incorrect. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, unlike the described finding of only hearing the sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs.
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