NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
- B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
- C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
- D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
2. A patient has a history of photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs is associated with photosensitive reactions? Select one that doesn't apply
- A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- B. Sulfonamide
- C. Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
- D. Nitro-Dur patch
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitro-Dur patch is not associated with photosensitive reactions. It is used to prevent chest pain or angina, and common side effects include headache, lightheadedness, nausea, and flushing. Choices A, B, and C are known to cause photosensitive reactions. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), Sulfonamides, and Norfloxacin (Noroxin) are drugs that are commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions. Patients taking these medications should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and use sun protection to prevent skin reactions.
3. The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?
- A. Use elastic stockings continuously
- B. Encourage range of motion and ambulation
- C. Massage the legs twice daily
- D. Place pillows under the knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging range of motion and ambulation is an effective preventive measure for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical clients. Mobility helps improve blood circulation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Elastic stockings help prevent blood pooling and clotting in the legs by providing external pressure to support venous return. Massaging the legs twice daily may help with circulation but is not as effective as promoting movement and ambulation. Placing pillows under the knees is a comfort measure and does not directly address the prevention of deep vein thrombosis.
4. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?
- A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
- B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
- C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
- D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.
5. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
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