Nursing Elites

1. When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of

• A. diabetes mellitus.
• B. high-protein diet.
• C. cigarette smoking.
• D. alcohol consumption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.

2. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

• A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
• B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
• C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
• D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

3. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

4. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?

• A. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
• B. Draw blood for coagulation studies.
• C. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations.
• D. Place the patient in the supine position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

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