NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
- A. IgA
- B. IgD
- C. IgE
- D. IgG
Correct answer: D
Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.
2. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Calcium
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Amylase
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.
3. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure?
- A. Hypoxemia
- B. Hypocapnia
- C. Hypercapnia
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure, such as those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the respiratory drive shifts from being primarily stimulated by high levels of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) to being driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia). This shift is due to the body's adaptation to chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. As a result, hypoxemia becomes the primary stimulus for respiration in these patients. Hypocapnia, a low level of carbon dioxide, is not a common driver of respiration in patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoxemia.
4. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
5. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
- A. alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Corticosteroid injection
- C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
- D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.
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