NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
- A. IgA
- B. IgD
- C. IgE
- D. IgG
Correct answer: D
Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.
2. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:
- A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
- B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
- C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
- D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Claudication is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease where there is an inadequate supply of oxygen to the muscles due to reduced blood flow. This mismatch between oxygen demand and supply leads to tissue hypoxia, resulting in cramping, weakness, and discomfort. Option D correctly states that claudication is characterized by cramping and weakness, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Claudication occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, not the other way around as stated in Option A. Pain in claudication typically occurs with activity, not at rest as mentioned in Option B. While tissue hypoxia is a consequence of claudication, it is not the primary cause, making Option C incorrect.
3. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?
- A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
- B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
- C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
- D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.
4. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute MI
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infectious processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
5. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?
- A. Observe for neurological changes
- B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
- C. Check the food diary
- D. Observe for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.
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